Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 13:06

What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Space photo of the week: Pink 'raindrops' on the sun captured in greatest detail ever - Live Science
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Astronomers Just Discovered The Biggest Explosions Since The Big Bang - ScienceAlert
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.