Logo

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 13:06

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Space photo of the week: Pink 'raindrops' on the sun captured in greatest detail ever - Live Science

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Astronomers Just Discovered The Biggest Explosions Since The Big Bang - ScienceAlert

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Do intellectuals who peddle pseudoscientific tripe like simulation theory ever stop and think they are just dumb NPCs for Illuminati bot wars?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.